10th Balkan 1993

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Problem 4

p is prime and k is a positive integer > 1. Show that we can find positive integers (m, n) ≠ (1, 1) such that (mp + np)/2 = ( (m + n)/2 )k iff k = p.

 

Solution

x = 2, y = 2 is a solution if k = p. Let z = (x+y)/2. If x+y is odd, then 2zm is not integral. Contradiction. Hence x+y is even. x=y=1 is not allowed, so z is at least 2. Hence (xp+yp)/2 < (x+y)p/2 ≤ (2z)p/2 < z2p, so m < 2p. But (xp + yp)/2 ≥ zp, so m ≥ p.

Put x = z+k, y = z-k. If k = 0, then lhs = zp, rhs = zm, so m = p and then any z is a solution. If k is non-zero, then ((z+k)p+(z-k)p)/2= zp + pC2 zp-2k2 + ... + pCp-1 z kp-1 = zm. So p divides zm - zp

 


 

10th Balkan 1993

© John Scholes
jscholes@kalva.demon.co.uk
11 Apr 2002